I prefer not to use the terminology "persons" when describing G-d. The Bible uses person not persons and the word means essence. 

When one says God is "3 persons" That gives the impression that there are 3 seperate enities (polythiesim), or 3 different characters (personalities/ essences). When we are told how the Father and son are One we speak of One essense (Not 3 personalities/1). Does God have different atributes? Yes and all his attributes complete the One essence that is GOD. Personality : relates back to person in every way and stresses individual difference. Nothing about saying God is 3 anything points to the fact that Christ said The LORD is one when he listed the greatest commandment. "Trinity" isnt a biblical term yet the relation of The Father , Son , and Holy Spirit is biblical. I know some embrace the terminology "trinity" in a context that is Monotheistic rather than three gods yet its not a term i use, cause so many misrepresent the Godhead with this term and there are many doctrines under this title. The orgins of the use of this terminology come from Roman/Greek theology of denominations that pervert the truth of GOD.

Lets document the context of the relation of Father and Son in:

KJV Heb.1:1-3

God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person (singular), and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high:

The Greek hypostasis (ὑπόστᾰσις)/ #5287 hupostasis (hoop-os'-tas-is)

From a compound of G5259 and G2476; a setting under (support), that is, (figuratively) concretely essence, or abstractly assurance (objectively or subjectively): - confidence, confident, "person", substance.

 The term has also been used and is still used in modern Greek (not just Koine Greek or common ancient Greek) to mean "existence" along with the Greek word hýparxis (ὕπαρξις) and tropos hypárxeos (τρόπος ὑπάρξεως), which is individual existence. "In the ecumenical councils the terminology was clarified and standardized, so that the formula "Three Hypostases in one Ousia" came to be accepted as an epitome of the orthodox doctrine of the Holy Trinity, that The Father, The Son and The Holy Spirit are three distinct 'hypostases' in one God"

"Three Hypostases in one Ousia"??? Documentation would be nice Where does the bible ever say 3 Hypostases??? Thats Not what Hebrews 1 said. It said the Son came in His (YHVH's) hupostasis. Not two Hypostases came in one Ousia. (anyone thinking I need to look at 1 Jn.5:7 please do the same and learn what crept into the text in the 16th century in that passage compared to what the greek manuscripts read. Lets even look at the modern sources with the 16th century Transliteration of 1 Jn.5! Does this say 3 Hypostases? NO)

What about Is.48:12,13,16,17? The LORD God of Israel is speaking and calls for attention (Shema) twice. Then he goes on to say "and now the LORD God, and his Spirit hath sent me" Do you see "Three Hypostases" here or do you see ONE? Is my intelect seperate from me? NO 

 3 personalities would even be differ than saying God is three persons, yet i dont think God has split personalities. Relations yes but personalities or persons No. Personality : relates back to person in every way and stresses individual difference. Nothing about saying God is 3 anything points to the fact that Christ said The LORD is one when he listed the greatest command of all. Trinity isnt a biblical term yet the relation of The Father , Son , and Holy Spirit is biblical. I know many embrace the terminology "trinity" in a context that is Monotheistic rather than three gods yet its not a term i use, cause so many misrepresent the Godhead with this term.

Heb.1:3 "image"- Greek - Charaktar (#5481)/ representation.

____________ Appendix 14___

Ex.15:3 "man" /eesh/ish- H#582 masculine individual

 (Josh 5:13/ Hosea 11:9/ Num.23:19/ Dan.9:21; 10:5; 12:6,7 Zech. 1:8)

The femine is Ishah (Gen.2:23) Great man in contrast to ordinary man (Ps.49:2)

NOT THE SAME AS:

 Gen.1:26 "man" /Adam/ H#120 human being

(Gen.1:26; 2:5;5:1- without The article denotes mankind in general/ Gen.1:27. 2:7,8,15,16,19... men is used to speak of decendants of Adam

With the particle Eth it becomes emphatic and means self, very THe , This very, This same," Man".

We also have the Hebrew:

Enosh "man" in his infirmities/ character, physical mortal, incurable

Morally= depraved/ phy=frail, weak from root anash to be sick ,weak, inability (2 Sam.12:5/ Job.34:6/ Jer.15:18...

(Gen.6:4/ always in a bad sense- Isa.5:22; 45:14/ Judges 18:25)

we also have :

Gibbor "man" which shows strength (mighty)

Gen.6:4 (the descendants of fallen angels) / Is.9:6 (Yeshua)

Christianity is MONOTHEISTIC

# Suggested Material: #

 http://friendsnchrist.ning.com/profiles/blogs/monotheistic-elohim  

Father (Avinu), Son(Ben), Holy Spirit (Ruach HaKodesh) are Echad (a unified one) IN ONE ESSENCE! This is true for the Tanach and the NT so terms like trinity and 3 persons only causes confussion.

 The Son apart from the Father is NOT G-d, The Spirit is NOT "G-d" apart from the Father. These are not to be separated

Paraklitas 

It is said in the beginning was the Word, the Word was with G-D and the Word was G-d Jn 1:1 then it goes on to say Jn1:14 that The Word was "made" flesh. If you simpley look at the greek word for made you see it means to come to pass and rendared as such 82 times in the kjv. That is the context of "made" so why did G-d use (need) flesh for his Word to come to pass? Lev.17 Its called atonement of the blood which ws fulfilled in Yeshua and was the reason he came in the flesh (heb.2:14).. JN.1 Has been perverted by many who possess a carnal mindset. It only said the Word was fulfilled In the flesh Not that G-d is flesh or flesh is G-d. G-d is NOT a man Jn.4:24 * - God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth. Num.23:19 / *Ps.118:8 / Hosea 11:9/ Lk.24:39 (1 Cor.15:50)! Col.2:9 /(Matt.23:9)/ (Is.43:10-11) NOT a single term translated to G-D, G-d or god in the bible pertains to humanity. The soul of man consists of both spirit and flesh. For the spirit to interact with the physical in a physical way a vechile is used and flesh is the vechile our spirits use to interact in the physical in a phy way. Again Heb 2:14 

_______ ("Holy Spirit In Judaism - Wiki")__

"The term is discussed in the Babylonian Talmud, Makkot 23b and elsewhere. Rabbinical use is discussed by Joseph Jacobs and Lajos Blau in the article "Holy Spirit" in the Jewish Encyclopedia of 1911.[21]

In Judaism, God is One; the idea of God as a duality or trinity is considered shituf (or "not #purely #monotheistic"). The term ruacḥ haQodesh is found frequently in Talmudic and Midrashic literature. In some cases it signifies prophetic inspiration, while in others it is used as a hypostatization or a metonym for God.[5] The rabbinical understanding of the Holy Spirit has a certain degree of personification, but it remains, "a quality belonging to God, one of his attributes".[22]

In Rabbinic Judaism references to the spirit of God abound, however apart from certain strains of Kabbalistic mysticism it has rejected any idea of God as being either dualistic, tri-personal, or ontologically complex.

Rashi taught that quasi-Sefirah Da'at is ruach haQodesh.[23]"

#personify 

The Elohim/ 1 Will